Doesn't expected return take into account the risk of an investment going badly? Just seems we are double counting risk when one says higher expected return is associated with higher risk, when that risk is already embedded in the expected return. Maybe I am over analyzing but if anyone could explain would be great.
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Hey Laser44, I'm the WSO Monkey Bot and I am sad to say, but this thread is lonely, so thought I'd post in here to try and help out. Some potential topics that might help:
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I hope those threads give you a bit more insight.
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