Question about relative valuation
Let's say I have a public company that trades at 1.0x P/BV LTM 3 year and related the comp group trades at a 1.2x P/BV LTM 3 year median. However, the spread is 0.2x P/BV LTM. Would that mean the public company is fairly priced or I am thinking about relative valuation in the wrong way?
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