Question says it all. Why is identifiable intangibles calculated as:
>Equity purchase price - book value of equity * % identifiable intangibles
And not
>Equity purchase price - tangible book value * % identifiable intangibles
Thank you!
Trending Content - Off Topic Forum
| +59 | Girlfriend found my UBS badge. I told her I was cheating. | 5 | 1d |
| +33 | Quit at 25? | 7 | 5h |
| +25 | What portable monitors are you guys actually using and would recommend? | 5 | 14h |
| +13 | Jensen Huang resignation | 15 | 2h |
| +12 | Anyone still having issues with Microsoft Outlook? | 2 | 2d |
| +6 | Honeymoon Length | 6 | 4d |
| +5 | I want to work for Google | 1 | 2d |
| +3 | Jam Band Debate | 1 | 16h |
Career Resources
Bump. Maybe even a high level explanation of Book Value of Equity vs. Tangible Book Value would be helpful.
Consequatur praesentium et quaerat optio est labore et. Pariatur doloremque voluptatibus harum odit sed excepturi. Excepturi est assumenda quasi qui similique. Omnis voluptatem placeat ratione ad. Quis et nostrum amet tempora quod. Adipisci quae neque laborum recusandae.
See All Comments - 100% Free
WSO depends on everyone being able to pitch in when they know something. Unlock with your email and get bonus: 6 financial modeling lessons free ($199 value)
or Unlock with your social account...