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Based on the most helpful WSO content, here's what you need to know about the relationship between Return on Capital (RoC) and IRR/Equity Multiple:

  1. Return on Capital (RoC):

    • RoC is a measure of the return that an investment generates relative to the capital invested.
    • It is typically calculated as: [ \text{RoC} = \frac{\text{Net Operating Profit After Taxes (NOPAT)}}{\text{Invested Capital}} ]
  2. Internal Rate of Return (IRR):

    • IRR is the annual rate of return that generates a Net Present Value (NPV) of zero for a series of cash flows.
    • It is a discount rate that makes the present value of future cash flows equal to the initial investment.
  3. Equity Multiple:

    • Equity Multiple is a measure of the total return on an investment relative to the equity invested.
    • It is calculated as: [ \text{Equity Multiple} = \frac{\text{Total Cash Inflows}}{\text{Total Cash Outflows}} ]

Correlation and Back-of-Envelope Calculation:

  • RoC and IRR:

    • While RoC is a snapshot metric, IRR considers the timing of cash flows. Both metrics aim to measure the efficiency of capital use but from different perspectives.
    • A rough correlation can be established by understanding that a higher RoC generally indicates a higher IRR, assuming consistent cash flow patterns.
  • RoC and Equity Multiple:

    • Equity Multiple is more straightforward as it does not consider the time value of money, unlike IRR.
    • A higher RoC can lead to a higher Equity Multiple if the investment period and cash flow patterns are favorable.

Simplified Equations:

  • IRR Approximation:

    • For a quick approximation, if the cash flows are relatively stable, IRR can be roughly estimated using RoC: [ \text{IRR} \approx \text{RoC} ]
    • This is a simplification and should be used with caution as it ignores the timing of cash flows.
  • Equity Multiple Approximation:

    • If RoC is known and the investment period is ( n ) years, the Equity Multiple can be approximated as: [ \text{Equity Multiple} \approx 1 + (\text{RoC} \times n) ]
    • This assumes that the returns are reinvested at the same RoC rate.

These approximations provide a quick way to think about the relationships but should be validated with detailed financial models for accuracy.

Sources: Relationship among Cap Rate, IRR, Discount rate and NPV, Rough mental return calculations?, Modeling Question: IRR goes down but CoC goes up over time, Why even use EBITDA?, DCF Modeling Course ~ Pre-training text.pdf

I'm an AI bot trained on the most helpful WSO content across 17+ years.
 

Good summary. Thanks.

In the context of fundraising, it'd be highly leverageable to guestimate a dollar multiple from a RoC to Cap Rate spread.  

Hopefully others may have thoughts. 

 

Oh I see what you mean now. It would be something like (property appreciation + property income) / hold pd*PV factor; (((YOC/Exit Cap*Cost$)+(Yoc*Cost$*# of Yrs))-Cost$)/# of Yrs.*PV Factor

For example if yoc=6.5%, exit cap=5%, cost =$100, hold= 4yrs, no debt, no rent growth, (((6.5%/5%*$100)+(6.5%*$100*5))-100)/4*.82[PV factor]  = 12.81% IRR.

You will need to adjust for rent growth & debt assumptions. PV factor also changes based on hold.

 
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I've found the easiest way to do this sort of mental math is by thinking of everything in terms of multiple. For example, if you buy something at a 6.5% cap then it's roughly a 15X on NOI. If you then sell it at a 5% cap it's trading for a 20X. 20 / 15 = 1.3.

This also makes it easier to get to the valuation in your head. If you said NOI is 1.6MM, I'm not going to do 1.6 / 6.5% in my head to determine purchase price - I'm going to do 1.6 * 15 = 24; purchase price is roughly $24MM. Then I can apply my 1.3X cap rate multiple to know that I'm selling it for roughly $32MM. This is really imprecise math but will make you look smart if you ever actually use it (spoilers: everybody just has a calculator on them). 

As far as then trying to figure out IRR, if you know your multiple you can derive your IRR via the rule of 72. Let's say I bought something with an 10% cash on cash, held it for 5 years, and then sold at the cap rate flip I described above. 10% yield for 5 years means I got 50% of my capital in cash, then my 1.3X on top of that means my multiple was 1.8X. That means I roughly got a double in 5 years - 72/5 = about 14%. Taking that a step further, say I got a 4X on a deal that was a 7 year hold. That means I doubled my money every 3.5 years, 72/3.5 = 26%, roughly my IRR. And you can obviously flip the equation to derive your multiple for a given hold if you just have the IRR.

 

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