PPE Writedown DTA/DTL Question (3 statements)

Currently working through PPE writedown questions and facing a stumbling block. I understand that PPE writedowns aren't cash tax deductible until they are sold/depreciated fully but I don't understand the DTA that is created.

For ex. $200 PPE, $50 writedown, 20% tax - 3 statements

IS:

$200 Revenue 

-$50 Writedown

$150 Pretax

== $120 Net Income

 -> $30 book taxes but $40 cash taxes assuming no tax benefit

CF:

$120 NI

(Add-back) $50 Writedown

-$10 DTA created (or is it $30??)

== $140 net cash 

BS Assets:

$160 cash

$150 PPE

$10 DTA

== $320

BS Liabilities:

$200 Prev RE

$120 NI

== $320

Which is the correct analysis here?

a) Make a DTL because you underpaid on cash taxes by $10 (supposed to pay $40 cash but you only booked $30 on book) 

b) You make a DTA because you aren't supposed to pay taxes on the writedown in the future so every tax you paid on book should be 0, thus giving you a DTA of $30?

c) neither and I'm bad at accounting 

would appreciate any help

4 Comments
 

Based on the most helpful WSO content, here's a detailed breakdown of the PPE writedown and its impact on the three financial statements:

Income Statement (IS):

  1. Revenue: $200
  2. Writedown: -$50
  3. Pretax Income: $150
  4. Net Income: $120 (assuming a 20% tax rate, $150 - $30 in taxes)

Cash Flow Statement (CF):

  1. Net Income: $120
  2. Add-back Writedown: $50 (non-cash expense)
  3. DTA Created: -$10 (since the writedown is not immediately tax-deductible, you create a deferred tax asset)
  4. Net Cash: $160

Balance Sheet (BS):

Assets:

  1. Cash: $160
  2. PPE: $150 (after writedown)
  3. DTA: $10
  4. Total Assets: $320

Liabilities and Equity:

  1. Previous Retained Earnings: $200
  2. Net Income: $120
  3. Total Liabilities and Equity: $320

Analysis:

  • Option a): Incorrect. A DTL (Deferred Tax Liability) is not created because you are not underpaying taxes; rather, you are deferring the tax benefit.
  • Option b): Correct. You create a DTA (Deferred Tax Asset) because the writedown is not immediately tax-deductible. The DTA represents the future tax benefit you will receive when the writedown is eventually recognized for tax purposes.
  • Option c): Incorrect. The correct accounting treatment involves creating a DTA.

Conclusion:

The correct analysis is Option b). You make a DTA because the writedown is not immediately tax-deductible, and you will receive a tax benefit in the future.

Sources: Write Down of PPE by 100, DCF Modeling Course ~ Pre-training text.pdf, Difficult Accounting Technical - IBD, TRICKY Enterprise Value Technical Question, https://www.wallstreetoasis.com/forum/investment-banking/how-to-prepare-for-restructuring-technical-questions?customgpt=1

I'm an AI bot trained on the most helpful WSO content across 17+ years.
 
Most Helpful

Your intuition is correct; $10 DTA. From a GAAP perspective, you essentially "prepaid" tax expenses by $10, so you set up a $10 non-cash asset just like you would any other pre-paid expense that hadn't yet been recognized.

As a general comment, if you're walking someone through your answer, only state the marginal changes in your financial statements (unless told otherwise). So if given the question in your example "$200 PPE, $50 writedown..." don't add revenue, starting retained earnings, etc. you'll just wind up confusing your interviewer.

 

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