Why CAPEX=D&A in the terminal year of a DCF?

Hi,

why do you assume a constant capital basis (i.e. Capex=D&A) from the terminal year of your projection period onwards? After all a growth rate is added to the FCF of the terminal year which then is treated as a perpetuity [FCF * (1+g) / (WACC - g)]. Wouldn't it be justifiable to assume a growing capital base in order to support this growth?

9 Comments
 

Try these two exercises:

  • Compare your perp growth rate to the company's actual historical growth rate. If you're doing it right, the former will be a fraction of the latter. Perpetuity growth usually = inflation, implying that real growth is zero. So capex should not exceed D (forget A - that's different) because that would imply you're deploying capital to investments that won't create growth

  • Run out your model with a more aggressive perp. growth rate. What you'll see is that this company of yours is on track to constitute about 1/3 of global GDP 50 years from now. I'm exaggerating of course, but perpetuity is a long time.

 

Recently finished my MSc and am starting an m&a- internship in 4 weeks from now.

What are you referring to with your last sentence - calculating the final year FCF or the terminal value?

 

I'm saying that market practice is doing a DCF to the out years (where you have line of sight) THEN assume that a company will be worth around an industry market multiple. So in year 10 the terminal value will be EBITDA x 8 to 13 or NI x 15 o r 20. Obviously, you'll need to make sector adjustments. You're better off just going out another 10yrs than you are assuming and arbitrary rate of perpetual growth.

 

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