Working Capital Question
Hi all,
Wanted to ask a question to see if I can get my head around something:
When it comes to Working Capital, why does this impact the cashflow statement? See below for my thoughts
- If we had a 30 day delay for revenues and a 30 day pay-ahead for opex, when we model the cashflow statement (say as a quarterly model), we still include the full revenue figure in that period at the top of our statement (and the same for opex).
- The working capital calculation then takes account any delays/pay forwards and then we take the net change to get the cash impact.
- Is this in an effort to reflect these payment timelines? Ie is this is the point of the change in NWC that impacts the cashflows directly which we include in our model? Because in a scenario where 1 quarter had 0 delays or pay forwards, we would not have any change in WC and the result would be 0 for NWC.
Is my logic above correct?
Many thanks!
Based on the most helpful WSO content, here's what you need to know:
Impact of Working Capital on Cash Flow Statement
Revenue and Opex Inclusion:
Working Capital Calculation:
Reflecting Payment Timelines:
Cash Impact:
Example from WSO Content
Deferred Revenue:
Net Operating Working Capital:
Conclusion
Your logic is correct. The change in NWC impacts the cash flow statement to reflect the timing of cash inflows and outflows due to delays in revenue collection and prepayments for expenses. This adjustment ensures that the cash flow statement accurately represents the company's cash position.
For more detailed discussions and examples, you can refer to the WSO threads and resources on working capital and cash flow modeling.
Sources: Working Capital considerations in LBO, DCF Modeling Course ~ Pre-training text.pdf, EBITDA vs. Operating Cash Flow vs. Free Cash Flow, Levered vs. Unlevered Free Cash Flow Difference, Investment Banking Interview Questions - 15 Answers to Land the Job
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