I understand that in a DCF, you don't include taxes in the FCFF, because it is already included in the tax shield in the WACC. But why is it not possible to leave it out of the WACC but then include it in the FCFF? Just in theory, why doesn't that make sense?
You certainly can leave it out of the WACC, but then in that case you'll be discounting FCFF at the unlevered cost of capital and then adding the present value of tax shields to arrive at the enterprise value; this enterprise value will be identical to the enterprise value derived from the WACC method. See "APV Valuation Method" for more context.
But is it also possible to leave it out at the WACC and then not calculate NOPAT in the CF but rather only subtract the actual taxes, as tax shield is now not part of WACC anymore?
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You certainly can leave it out of the WACC, but then in that case you'll be discounting FCFF at the unlevered cost of capital and then adding the present value of tax shields to arrive at the enterprise value; this enterprise value will be identical to the enterprise value derived from the WACC method. See "APV Valuation Method" for more context.
But is it also possible to leave it out at the WACC and then not calculate NOPAT in the CF but rather only subtract the actual taxes, as tax shield is now not part of WACC anymore?
You could build out something from net income, so levered free cash flow, which would get you to equity value. And then u could go from equity value to enterprise value.
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Quisquam exercitationem maiores magnam aspernatur rerum autem id nisi. Odit vero accusantium natus sint quasi. Qui vitae id natus architecto expedita deleniti. Quia qui omnis eum aut.
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