Valuation question - Why are they adding taxes back to OCF??

I was going through the model of a gaming company prepared by the equity analyst of a top bank. In their Free Cash Flow formula, I noticed that they added back taxes after having substracted it in Operating Cash Flow (OCF).

Perhaps easier sharing their formula: FCF = Operating Cash Flow - Capex + Add-back of taxes.

Perhaps a dumb question, but I can't figure out why you would add back a cash outflow like taxes. Any help?

Thanks a lot

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