LBO Model - IRR
Hi, i would really appreciate if someone can help me!
I‘m reviewing a business plan and i‘m not entirely sure about the correctness of IRR calculation.
So the investment horizont is 8 years, in year 0 there is a negative cash flow for the sponsor (equity investment) but from the first year to the last year the business is generating positive FCFE. In the year 8, the business is sold for X amount, and the cashflow for sponsor in that year is calculated as an Enterprise Value - Debt repayment + Cash Outstanding + FCFE achieved year 8.
The overall IRR is calculated by taking into account every year and the cashflow to the sponsor + cashflow in year 8 as described above.
It appears to me that the cash position is double counted, as FCFE is not substracted from the cash item on the balance sheet. What is your opinion? And would you calculate it with FCFE in every year although these weren‘t paid out, or would you just consider the amount in year 8?
Many thanks!
Would say that there is double coutning too. Typically, you accumulate all those CFs and substract it from the debt at exit or use them each year to pay off debt. So in either case, your IRR calculation only has 2 cash outflow/inflows entry and exit
FCFE =/= cash position on balance sheet
Your FCFE would be the sum of your equity injections (in this case purchase price, unless you have further equity injections down the line which does not seem to be the case) and dividends.
The bottom of your cash flow waterfall (ie cash flow available for distribution) + equity injections (positive sign in the waterfall) + dividends (negative sign in the waterfall) would be your net cash - this is your “cash movement” and hence the change in BS cash in every period. If you have unrestricted distribution the movement should be zero, unless you want to release cash on balance sheet or you wanna use it to fund shortfalls in a certain period.
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