Debt Asset Management Question
Hey Guys
I have a quick question regarding debt asset management best practices.
Suppose you have a €64.4m loan originated at 2.25% + reference rate (SOFR/SONIA/EURIBOR), with a cap strike at 1.75%, and the reference rate currently at 2.82%.
If the cap is in the money, when modelling ICR should this be done net of hedging proceeds or gross? In other words, should interest be modelled using the all-in rate of 5.07% or 4% for the purposes of calculating ICR or DSCR?
In this example:
• Modelling ICR on gross interest gives ~1.43x
• Modelling ICR on net interest gives ~1.81x
I’d be very interested in perspectives from both a European and a US standpoint.
Thanks in advance!
Edit: Thanks guys this makes sense and I agree with the logic. I tend to show both as the net shows the financial burden on the sponsor whereas, showing the gross impact if for one reason or another the sponsor cannot afford to purchase a cap at expiry.
When modeling ICR (Interest Coverage Ratio) in the context of a loan with a cap in the money, the approach depends on the specific purpose of the analysis and the perspective of the stakeholders involved. Here's a breakdown based on insights from WSO discussions:
Gross Interest Approach (All-in Rate of 5.07%):
Net Interest Approach (Adjusted Rate of 4%):
European vs. US Perspective:
Recommendation:
In your example: - Gross Interest (5.07%): ICR = ~1.43x - Net Interest (4%): ICR = ~1.81x
Both calculations are valid, but the choice should align with the purpose of the analysis and the audience's expectations.
Sources: Looking for Multifamily model with Loan Sizing Constraints, Multi-Family Acquisitions Excel Test, Great Deals You've Recently Done, So you want to work in CRE Debt? Here are the options..., Loan Terms
Debt AM in US - if it is capped til maturity / they are forced to cap, then it would be the strike price + spread. So 4% in this case.
ICR will be calculated as the spread + min(strike strate, applicable base rate) so 4% base rate in this case
Two things to flag here: As a Lender, you will still receive the full base rate as your Borrower will pay up to the strike of the cap and the hedge counterparty will pay for the amount above the strike cap
Also, if hedging in the money can artificially boost your ICR, looking at interest cover on the actual base rate could enable you to have a better view on potential refi risk as your borrower might not be able to pay interest at hedge expiry
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