13 Comments
 

I think you might be referring to the terminal period.

In the terminal period you want to make sure that CAPEX is larger than or equal to depreciation. If depreciation is larger than CAPEX in the terminal period, you are assuming that your fixed asset base is being depreciated out and you will run out/don't need fixed assets in the terminal periods (all businesses need fixed assets).

 
Best Response

I interpreted your question differently than the above posters (their comments are spot on if you're thinking about modeling).

If capex=depreciation, it means that the company does not need to plow money into PPE (capex) above replacement (depreciation)... In most cases, there will be inflation that causes capex to be higher than depreciation even if it's only replacing old PPE.

If you're interested in how this plays out in the real world, I would recommend reading Warren Buffet's rationale behind purchasing the Berkshire textile mill. Specifically when he explained to the manager of the mill why capex would be reduced even thought it would impede future revenue.

Array
 
"Your boy Blue"

If you're interested in how this plays out in the real world, I would recommend reading Warren Buffet's rationale behind purchasing the Berkshire textile mill. Specifically when he explained to the manager of the mill why capex would be reduced even thought it would impede future revenue.

Where can I read up on this? I have exactly the same problem

 

for modelling purpose, it doesn't matter much. you are not projecting out 100 years. as long as you don't let depreciation to result in a negative or drastic yoy reduction in net PP&E, it should be fine. it's ok to have net PP&E decrease, as depreciation itself is an arbitrary thing based on management's judgement of the useful life of the hard assets, etc.

 

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