2:1 or 1st needed for banking?

For context I go to a Warwick/UCL/Imperial level target. I work while at uni and grades have been taking a hit.

I got a 73 first year, I signed an SA offer recently which should hopefully convert so I’m wondering if I can slack a bit and let it drop to a 2:1 now or if it will hurt me long term.

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Offer will be a 2:1 (although I’ve heard a few killers perform so well that they’ve been given 2:2 offers).

that being said, a first will always look better, marginally speaking for job laterals and later applications, but quite significantly if you ever go back to school for an MBA or Master’s.

 

You can have a look on LinkedIn at the people from your uni that get into M7s (in general, Imperial has much better MBA placement than UCL or Warwick). A first is equivalent to a 3.7-4.0 GPA and you’ll generally be given the BoD with one that you’re at or above the median academic standard. A 2:1 is equivalent to 3.3/3.0-3.7, so they’ll have to look in more detail and the GMAT becomes more important. 
 

If you look at the people from those universities (or LSE or Oxbridge) who get into M7s, most do have Firsts (especially for HSW). But a high 2:1 (65% or above) wouldn’t rule you out. 

 

To an extent, but you have to remember that too MBA programs will already have many applicants with a first AND a top GMAT. 
 

Don’t coast, focus on getting a first. If you don’t convert SA or something goes wrong in between elsewhere you’ll be grateful for any advantages you can get. 

 

Do investment banks actually state in WORD in the full time contract (for both return offers and successful FT applicants) that you have to achieve a 2.1 grade in order to join them after you graduate?

So what happens to those who have got a Full time offer, but end up getting a 2:2? - Do their offers get taken back?

 

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