Amortising Repayment and Interest Coverage/Cost Allocation | Debt Financing

When working on a case study with very little information given, the following questions occured.

1) When calculating the interest coverage ratio, how do I treat amortising loans? If they yield 0.75% should I treat 0.75% of the notional value as interest expense although that is technically wrong? Do I include the "amortising part" when calculating interest coverage? (No debt schedule given)

2) Apart from that, if I know that costs for a project are $100mm for renovating the office, employing more people, etc., how do I estimate which amount to capitalize and how much to treat as costs? According to my accounting knowledge, payments regarding the office can be capitalised while marketing costs etc. cannot. However, it is impossible to assume how much is spent on the office itself. Furthermore, I do not know when these cash outflows will be occurring apart from that it will be within three years.

3) Is it reasonable to assume that payments are 30, 40, 30, in years 1, 2 and 3 respectively? (Since most costs might occur in the beginning but year one has already started)

4) In terms of the maintenance covenants put in place by a bank would it make a difference if the amount is e.g. 100mm or 150mm? Otherwise it would not make any sense to take use of a private placement with more relaxed/flexible covenants or a public bond with concurrence covenants, assuming the bank loan would yield less.

Thank you very much in advance for any input!