Perpetuity Growth Model rationale - Why we divide terminal value by WACC/CoE?
Hello,
I wanted to ask behind the rationale of dividing terminal value by WACC in formula: Residual year FCFF/(WACC-Long_term_growth)
. I understand that long term growth counteracts WACC however I do not completely understand the figure that we receive from this division. Is it like 10% WACC equals 10x exit multiple? If yes, then why?
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