11 Comments
 

finance_king - agreed mathematically. One follow-up would be the concept that "a dollar of cash is a dollar of cash". Unless it is trapped i.e. has tax liabilities or encumbered by any other assets / liabilities, should it not be accounted for fully in the market cap i.e. dollar for dollar (or at least close enough)? Am I missing something here?

 
Best Response

Think about how you would value the company on a sum of the parts basis. If there are 3 divisions each generating $100M of EBITDA which you believe should each trade at 10x EBITDA (for simplicity's sake), you get an enterprise value of $3B. Implied within the multiples you're assuming is essentially a DCF of those divisions' future cash flows.

But what about the cash it has currently? Surely that counts to the equity holder? If the company was in a net cash position (say, $1B of cash and $500M of debt), you would add the current cash and subtract the current debt amount from the EV of your operating assets to get to the equity value, which in this case would be $3.5B.

That's why you get people talking about trading multiples "ex. cash" for cash rich companies such as AAPL.

In reality obviously it's a bit more complicated because you actually have to use that cash in value-enhancing way.

 

Market cap is equity value.

The answer is straight up NO.

We are not equivocating "cash" as "liquidity source" or considering corner cases where companies are forced to hoard mountains of cash in lieu of repatriation.

 

Share price already includes value on surplus cash on hand. I'm a little confused by the question, but the key is not to double count it.

1 share = proportional claim over the company's assets.

Share price reflects market's view of value of company's assets less debt. ie value in use (= enterprise value excluding surplus cash and surplus assets) + value in exchange (= face value of cash surplus to business + market view on value of surplus assets) less debt.

In formula terms, you can show that as:

Market cap = EBITDA x implied EV/EBITDA of core business + surplus cash + implied market view on value of surplus assets - debt

Also, market cap = number of shares x share price

So market cap does implicitly include the value of cash. But you just calculate it as number of shares x share price.

"Surplus cash" - excludes cash on balance sheet that is necessary to run the business eg working capital.

Those who can, do. Those who can't, post threads about how to do it on WSO.
 

Market Cap = Shares Out * Share Price ( we all know this already)

We obviously know shares out but what is share price? Share price is the present value of future cash flows. How do we determine future cash flows. Well no need to point out how to do this but cash on hand is typically left out the calculation to determine future cash flows. I say typically because cash on hand can be used in valuation but now you have to use a different formula and make beta adjustments and discount adjustments etc.

So, the answer is yes and no. If the answer is no cash/marketable securities are valued separately and added to market cap to arrive at value of the firm.

 

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