FCFE vs FCFF

Hi ! 

According to the theory, FCFF is the cash flow for both equity and bet holders and FCFF and FCFE are related to each other as follows:

  • FCFE = FCFF – Int(1 – Tax rate) + Net borrowing.

However, why interests aren't considered in a gross base for FCFF, as creditors receive intests in full?

I mean, FCFF, which is broader than FCFE (as it computes flows owned by creditors too), shouldnt be FCFF = FCFE+ int + net borrowing ?

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Hi guys.

Tks for the replies.

I do understand the concept of tax shield.

Maybe the doubt lies on "to whom" is this FCFF cash available

I am considering FCFF is the firm´s money available to all equity + credit holders;

(a) The interests tax shield (i.e. the firm´s corporate tax NOT paid because of of interests expenses, " tax * i ") only ADDs money available to the equity holders.

Correct me if I am wrong : bond/credit holders are entitled to 100% of the interests, right?

(b)  But Even if you consider that credit holders will eventually have to pay taxes on such interest revenue ( "tax * i" ) and thereby should compute only the net value gained ( " (1-t)* i " ) , that would only make Taxes neutral to the total money available to both equity + debt holders of the Firm.

 i.e Equity holders "gain" t*i tax shield per point ("a") above and bond holders pay t*i taxes per point ("b").

What am I losing here?
Can someone try to make the concept more clear, please ?

PS: mixing computation of FCFE an FCFF starting by NI or NOPAT only makes things more complicated when trying to compare, because there are many lines between both (interests mainly).

 

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